Test 5

CNS Infections

Question 1: A natural epidural space exists around

Question 2: The most common cause of subdural empyema is:

Question 3: A 50 year old patient was admitted to the hospital with a hemorrhagic rash, a temperature of 40C, and shock. He was treated with antibiotics but died in 3 hours. The best way establish the diagnosis in this case is:

Question 4: Which is more likely to develop one week after the onset of untreated bacterial meningitis?

Question 5: The most dangerous feature of an abscess is:

Question 6: Which of the following is not seen in CNS syphilis ?

Question 7: A 3 year old boy presents to the ER in mid September with a history of diarrhea, headache and obtundation. A spinal tap is done. The most appropriate studies are:

Question 8: Familial CJD cases are:

Question 9: Most CJD cases are:

Question 10: Are there prion protein gene mutations in sporadic CJD?

Question 11: Meningitis usually crosses the pial barrier and involves the brain

Question 12: A 15 year old boy was admitted to the hospital with a hemorrhagic rash, temperature of 40C and shock. He was treated with antibiotics but died 5 hours later. The autopsy showed:

Question 13: A 36 year old AIDS patient had fever, headaches, and neurological deficits. MRI showed multiple enhancing brain lesions. A stereotactic biopsy of one lesion was done. The findings are consistent with:

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Question 14: *A 6 day old baby developed sepsis, hypotonia, respiratory insufficiency, and died. The autopsy revealed the brain stem (left) and spinal cord (right) lesions shown below. The most likely diagnosis is:

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Question 15: The lesion illustrated below may be caused by:

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Question 16: The pathology shown below most likely represents:

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Question 17: Animal prion diseases occur naturally in the US

Question 18: The CSF in a patient with the lesion illustrated below shows:

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Question 19: The lesions illustrated below are caused by:

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Question 20: The lesion illustrated below is caused by:

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Question 21: The lesion illustrated below is caused by:

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Question 22: A 60 year old patient presented with fever and headaches for 2 days, seizures and hemorrhagic CSF. MRI showed a left frontotemporal lesion with edema. The biopsy of the hemorrhagic lesion is shown below. The diagnosis can be best obtained by:

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Question 23: The lesions shown below are caused by:

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Question 24: The most likely cause of the pathology in the 59 year old patient illustrated below is:

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